Turbo
Well-Known Member
good to know, I was using strains based on the reports about the case.
It's not incorrect to refer to them as different strains. Technically any genetic variant can be considered to be a different "strain" - but you have to be careful because it doesn't necessarily mean that the new "strain" is functionally different from the original one. It's a bit of a wishy washy term. With influenza, when you talk about different strains, you usually mean there were significant antigenic changes to the surface proteins (which means different antibodies/vaccines may be needed to combat it).
In this case, I wanted to be sure that it was understood that the 2nd "strain" didn't infect because antibodies from the 1st infection didn't work - scientists seem to think that coronavirus neutralising antibodies don't stay around for very long, and that seems to be the case for SARS-CoV-2 as well (the length of time probably varies between individuals and depending on how severe the 1st infection is).
Basically, the 2nd infection for this case is not because of genetic changes that circumvented antibodies from the 1st infection but because there were no neutralising antibodies remaining from the first infection. The immune system did do something though because the second infection was asymptomatic. It will be interesting to find out what happened.